A few years ago, I have studied Spanish in high school, for two years, though I feel fit to confess that I remember very few things from those classes, and I am not able to maintain a conversation in Spanish.
- Now I am taking a university course in Latin, and I am sure (as anybody who shares my experience probably likewise will be) there are direct correlations between the two languages. One thing that I did remember from my Spanish class is the irregular form of tenēre/tener; now that I realize that this verb is regular in Latin (1st p. sing. pres. indic. = teneō), is there a linguistic reason why this became tengo in Spanish, or is this just an idiosyncrasy, which like every language has? Or are tenēre/tener not related verbs?
Of course, I realize that this is not a Latin forum, but the question sort of traverses between the two, and there is no LATINDICT, so I thought fit to ask this question here. Verbs in the Romance family tend to become more regular, not less so, and this seems an exception.
- Do all regular verbs take the same stem for all tenses? I've been told that there's only one principal part for most Spanish verbs, but I'm just checking to make sure.