The post by Gringojrf got me thinking.
http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/264924/pueden-agradecrmelo-ms-tarde
Most of us have learned RID (Reflexive, Indirect, Direct) as the traditional order of pronouns.
But, I have seen an alternative claim (Butt and Benjamin) that the order of the pronouns can be thought of as:
1-se
2-te/os
3-me/nos
4-le/les/lo/la/los/las
His question would have had “me” as the direct object, and the thing for which he was being thanked as the indirect object- and so the question was why was it melo and not leme. The latter combination would be against the other (Butt and Benjamin) rule, but allowed by the RID rule.
So it makes me wonder whether Spanish verbs are constructed in a way that does not allow that to happen (as regards what is the direct object and what is the indirect object).
So I am wondering if anyone can come up with an example breaking this second rule (from a grammatically correct native speaker source, of course). If both rules work, then it may be useful to know both to help avoid pitfalls.
Edit to add:
The above link lets you scroll through the whole book, see section 11.12 page 143
